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Post by Calvins_Kid on Nov 10, 2008 4:00:58 GMT -5
Hey all,
I would like to ask for ya'lls help on this, cause I'm not sure I got it straight:
[glow=red,2,300]Does total depravity apart from common Grace necessitate utter depravity?[/glow]
Utter depravity: Man will always choose the worst possible thing every time he is faced with a choice and be the worst he possibly can be.
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Post by Paul A. Kaiser on Nov 11, 2008 22:42:08 GMT -5
I haven't fully worked that out yet but by definition TD is not that man is as corrupt as he can be but rather that he is totally affected by sin in all aspects: Mind, Action, Body, etc.
I would however contend that without God's restraining grace in the lives of man we would be much more detestable and debase than we are.
Any thoughts?
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Post by Ryan Dozier on Nov 12, 2008 1:30:08 GMT -5
I think you could logically deduce this from scripture. However, I too have not studied this issue.
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Post by Calvins_Kid on Nov 13, 2008 9:45:35 GMT -5
Thanks for the replies:
This really helps me mold it, thanks
and thanks for that... I'm going to have a look into it..
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